I considered deleting the post, but this seems more cowardly than just admitting I was wrong. But TIL something!

  • lemmington_steele@lemmy.world
    2·
    10 months ago

    technically yes, but the proof would usually show that this works by constructing the bijection of [0,1] and (0,1) and then you’d say the cardinalities are the same by the Schröder-Berstein theorem, because the proof of the latter is likely not something you want to demonstrate every day