Both utility bills and restaurant bills are demands to satisfy a debt after the service have been rendered. And in cases of rental properties, it’s refusal to pay even before the service (the legal right to reside in the property) is rendered, since most leases require paying on the first of the month. Why shouldn’t they all just be considered either all civil or all criminal. I don’t understand the inconsistency in legislation.
Country: United States of America
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Here’s my not-a-lawyer opinion:
If you refuse to pay rent, you are breaching a contract that you signed, which is not considered criminal (ever, afaik).
Ordering food at a restaurant probably doesn’t count as a contract, so it’s just regular theft (which is criminal).
