• Saik0@lemmy.saik0.com
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    3 months ago

    Not according to the etymology. https://www.etymonline.com/word/nigger

    1786, earlier neger (1568, Scottish and northern England dialect), negar, negur, from French nègre, from Spanish negro (see Negro).

    All of these languages are latin-based languages… So there must be a latin root. If you dig further you find

    from Latin nigrum (nominative niger) “black, dark, sable, dusky” (applied to the night sky, a storm, the complexion), figuratively “gloomy, unlucky, bad, wicked,”

    So yes negro exists in the middle but not as the source necessarily… It would have evolved (if I read the etymology correctly) as Nigrum -> Niger -> Negro/neger/negar/negur -> Nigger.