Why not periods? Why doesn’t every sentence in Spanish that isn’t a question or exclamation start with a period floating in the sky?

  • all-knight-party@kbin.run
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    51
    arrow-down
    1
    ·
    9 months ago

    I would assume it’s because it leads the reader to what tone to use in a given sentence. The question mark or exclamation point would be useful in tone throughout the whole sentence, but if neither is present in front of the sentence a regular reading tone could be assumed.

    so why add a floating period when nothing being there allows for the same assumption and is much, much simpler and easier?

    • Catoblepas@lemmy.blahaj.zone
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      35
      ·
      9 months ago

      Still learning Spanish but I believe this is correct, because you can insert a question mark into the middle of a sentence as well if the entire sentence isn’t a question.

      Ex:

      I have fish, do you want to cook it?

      Tengo pescado, ¿quieres cocinarlo?

        • DeltaTangoLima@reddrefuge.com
          link
          fedilink
          English
          arrow-up
          22
          ·
          9 months ago

          Language is more than just written script and spoken words - grammar is very language specific too. In Spanish, the example above is indeed grammatically correct.

        • Catoblepas@lemmy.blahaj.zone
          link
          fedilink
          arrow-up
          11
          ·
          9 months ago

          Yup! I really like it a lot more than how we do it in English honestly, it’s like quotation marks for a question. It’s very pleasing to me to have something in the sentence clearly highlighting what the question is. If it has any annoyances or drawbacks I’m not at a comprehension level where I’ve run into them.

  • teft@lemmy.world
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    36
    ·
    9 months ago

    It’s because Spanish sentence structure is different from English. In Spanish the sentences “Can I tell you? (¿Te lo puedo decir?) and “I can tell you.” (Te lo puedo decir.) are formed the same way. The initial punctuation lets the reader know that the sentence is a question or exclamation or not so they can parse the sentence properly from the start.

    • 🇰 🌀 🇱 🇦 🇳 🇦 🇰 ℹ️@yiffit.netOP
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      5
      ·
      9 months ago

      Well now I have to wonder why other languages don’t do the front punctuation thing. It would be just as helpful in English as it is in Spanish to know a sentence is a question before getting to the end of it. Scrambling to lift your voice into a question you’ve been reading as a statement until you see the question mark at the end is awkward. lol

      • usualsuspect191@lemmy.ca
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        6
        ·
        9 months ago

        Scrambling to lift your voice into a question you’ve been reading as a statement until you see the question mark at the end is awkward

        I’d argue this is exactly why it’s not necessary on English; what makes it a question tends to be the inflection at the very end so no real need for a warning way at the beginning.

        • wjrii@lemmy.world
          link
          fedilink
          English
          arrow-up
          4
          ·
          9 months ago

          Also, while English certainly can form questions that are identical to statements (“They fly now?” “They fly now.”), it’s not necessary or even the most common way. More of the burden for clear communication can be left to the writer.

    • Nougat@fedia.io
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      2
      arrow-down
      4
      ·
      9 months ago

      English manages the exact same thing without the leading punctuation.

      • teft@lemmy.world
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        7
        ·
        edit-2
        9 months ago

        English changes the order of the words of the sentence. Spanish uses punctuation marks. It’s just differences in languages. Personally I appreciate them since it helps me read Spanish quicker with fewer parsing errors.

        • Nougat@fedia.io
          link
          fedilink
          arrow-up
          3
          arrow-down
          3
          ·
          9 months ago

          “How would I find out?”

          I can tell you.

          I can tell you?

          Yes, English uses word order to define grammar in many more sentences than Spanish, but not exclusively.

  • z00s@lemmy.world
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    7
    arrow-down
    2
    ·
    9 months ago

    Here’s a period: .

    Here’s an upside-down period: .

    Hope that clears things up.

  • iAmTheTot@kbin.social
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    3
    ·
    9 months ago

    Fun fact but it’s actually a pretty recent thing for the language in the first place. While first done in the 1700’s iirc, there are Spanish language publications that didn’t follow the punctuation rules as recently as the 1900’s.

  • wjrii@lemmy.world
    link
    fedilink
    English
    arrow-up
    3
    ·
    9 months ago

    Period would be the default, so no reason to include it as well. Questions and exclamations have a different tone than simple statements, so it’s more useful. It’s particularly useful in Spanish, as the word order/conjugation is changed less frequently than in English, so it’s going to help a reader understand intent more quickly. It seems like it became established as “proper” in 1754 by Spain’s Royal Academy. It also would have been very easy for printers, as they would just chuck their existing type into the tray upside down.